Bostonian,
You've hit on one of the problems with using the Bible as a guide. And this is only the beginning. Deciding how to use the text is one of the central problems that divides us.
One could get an even more extreme regarding women in 1 Cor. 14:
As in all the churches of the saints,
[34] the women should keep silence in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be subordinate, as even the law says.
[35] If there is anything they desire to know, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church.
There are some conservative churches which don't allow women to read scripture in church because of this. I'm not sure what the Roman Catholic Church does.
To get an idea of what problems one can encounter when using the Bible as a guide, look at Exodus 22:25 and Deuteronomy 23:19.
Ex. 22:25 (RSV) "If you lend money to any of my people with you who is poor, you shall not be to him as a creditor, and you shall not exact interest from him. "
Deut 23:19 is in my signature line below.
There are a few other places in the Bible where the collection of interest is discussed. It is never put in a positive light. Deut 23:19 clearly condemns collecting interest from other believers. Jesus never repealed this restriction.
So, how do we justify collecting interest on our bank accounts? Surely there are other believers who are paying interest to us through the bank.
From wikipedia, here's what the Pope thought the Bible said about collection of interest in 1745:
"In 1745, the Catholic teaching on usury was expressed by Pope Benedict XIV in his encyclical Vix Pervenit, which strictly forbids charging interest on loans, although he adds that "entirely just and legitimate reasons arise to demand something over and above the amount due on the contract" through separate, parallel contracts."
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/UsuryIn fact, that wikipedia page, there's a big list of 'usury' quotations from the Bible. (Usury has a connotation of 'excessive' interest today, but as far as I can tell, when the King James Bible was written, it did not have this connotation.)
Modern translations seem to use the word 'interest' instead of 'usury'.
The Biblical commentaries that I have say that the Levitical and Deuteronomical condemnations of interest collection 'do not anticipate' the notion of commercial loans. That seems apologetic to me - where's the evidence for this? And if some sort of 'understanding in modern context' exception can be made with this, can we allow for such understandings in other areas - like marriage, for example? Is it fair to say the biblical writers 'did not anticipate' that people of the same sex might be born naturally attracted to each other?
Some time ago, I challenged the conservatives on the board to come up with a better explanation for the interst/usury matter. I don't think they delivered, but you can look back in the archives for that discussion and decide for yourself.
There are two approaches to reading the Bible. You can begin by presupposing that it is the inerrant Word of God. Then everything which seems like a problem is not a problem, and some people will come up with all sorts of explanations why it's not a problem. Whether you find those explanations convincing is up to you. But if you challenge those explanations in conservative churches, don't expect to get a friendly reception. (And frankly, some liberal women priests will not give you a friendly reception if you get them to try to explain why they call the Bible the Word of God in spite of the above problems.)
The other approach is to make no assumptions about whether the Bible is the Word of God - and what that might mean - and make your own decisions about it as you read it.
I'll give you another example of something that will make you wonder what it means to call the Bible the Word of God.
In Mark 2:25-26 Jesus talks about a famous incident where David eats consecrated bread in an emergency, and says this occurred when Abiathar was the high priest.
But when you look back to read about the incident in 1 Samuel 21:1-6, it's obvious: Abiathar wasn't the high priest, Ahimelech was. Abiathar became priest later on. Is this an error in the Bible? Did Jesus forget? Did Mark make a mistake?
The fundamentalist approach is that no, it can't be an error, and so they seek apologetic explanations for why it isn't. You can read one of them here:
www.lookinguntojesus.net/ata20021013.htmOnly you can decide whether you think the explanation is convincing. But of one thing you can be sure: they didn't weigh the evidence to consider whether their explanation or an actual contradiction is more likely. They already know what the truth is and just want to convince you and themselves it's not a contradiction.
There are many, many, many problems like this. The vast majority of Christians are utterly unaware of them, including myself only a year ago.
So, to get back to your original questions: indeed, reading the Bible literally would make life so much easier. But I think there are no easy answers to approach reading the Bible.
My best suggestion is to become well-informed. Do lots of reading from lots of sources. Read the Bible along with an explanatory book. That's about where I am in my journey, and I have a long way to go.
You might be interested in knowing that the 'fundamentalist' movement is a modern movement, which arose to deal with the problems such as those above raised by modern biblical scholarship.
Sidney